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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

13.06.2025 07:18

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Have you ever had sex with your female cousin? How did it start?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why do people say African Americans act the way they do because they're poor, when the ones with money act the same?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.